In a [comment over at mathematics.stackexchange.com](https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4816739/can-the-occurrence-of-certain-digits-be-proven-disproven-for-any-arbitrary-irra), I just (well, now stuff has happened and it's 8 hours ago) claimed that for most numbers it is not known whether they are normal. And then I got to think whether that is actually true?
Is there some set of numbers that (in some way, whether my measure, cardinality or something I haven't thought of) encompasses "most numbers", for which we know none (or just a few - in some meaningful sense) are normal? I believe that e.g. most rational numbers (but neither by measure nor by cardinality can they be said to be "most numbers") are not normal.
Grove
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2023-11-29T23:42:42Z (12 months ago)