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Comments on 25% probability that there was a chance of avoiding injury $\quad$ vs. $\quad$ 25% chance of avoiding injury

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25% probability that there was a chance of avoiding injury $\quad$ vs. $\quad$ 25% chance of avoiding injury

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I ask about merely the math behind the last sentence of footnote 71 quoted below. I quote the legalistic sentences thereinbefore for context, but they may be immaterial.

How does "a 25% probability that there was a chance of avoiding injury" differ from "25% chance of avoiding injury"? Alas, my mind is conflating these 2 chances.

71 Though some academics do insist that damages for loss of a chance could have been awarded in Hotson [v East Berkshire Health Authority [1987] AC 750 268]: see Peel 2003b, 627, and references contained therein. An amazing number of academics argue that the fact that the House of Lords awarded the claimant in Hotson nothing means that Hotson is authority for the proposition that damages for loss of a chance of avoiding physical injury cannot be claimed in negligence: see Porat & Stein 2003, 679; Weir 2004, 214–15. As the majority of the Court of Appeal recognised in Gregg v Scott [2002] EWCA Civ 1471 (at [39], per Latham LJ and at [78], per Mance LJ) this is incorrect – the facts of the case in Hotson were such that the claimant simply could not bring a claim for loss of a chance against the defendants. See, to the same effect, Reece 1996; also Hill 1991. Fleming 1997 puts the point quite well (at 69): ‘[A] 25% probability that there was a chance [of avoiding injury cannot] be conflated into a 25% chance [of avoiding injury].’

N.J. McBride and R. Bagshaw, Tort Law, 6th edn (2018), page 280, footnote 71.

In the last sentence, "Fleming 1997" refers to John G. Fleming, “Preventive Damages” in N J Mullany (ed), Torts in the Nineties (LBC Information Services, Sydney, 1997), pp 56-71.

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x-post https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4693904/25-probability-that-there-was-a-chance-of-avo... (1 comment)
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r~~‭ wrote about 1 year ago

Not a math question. OP should perhaps ask this in a community for English language learners.

Tim Pederick‭ wrote about 1 year ago

I disagree. It strikes me as akin to meta-statements like $A\to B$ versus $\left(A\to B\right)\to C$. I think it would also be on topic as an English usage question (no need to impute learner status to OP), but that doesn’t invalidate its presence here.

r~~‭ wrote about 1 year ago

I don't think being akin to a statement in predicate logic is sufficient to make a question on topic for math. Contemplating the mortality of Socrates would also be off topic, unless it was specifically asking about applying modus ponens or something. Likewise, I think it would be okay if OP were using this example to ask about rules of probability in modal logics and the difference between $P(\phi)$ and $P(\Diamond \phi)$, but as written that isn't the question. The question is about how to interpret an English phrase differently if the words ‘probability that there was a’ are present, which only incidentally references mathematical content.

(OP is not new to this site and they have previously established that English is not their first language, not that this makes a difference to how on-topic the question is.)

Tim Pederick‭ wrote about 1 year ago · edited about 1 year ago

Of course it’s not sufficient. My point was only that the question lies somewhere in the intersection of maths and language. It raises some doubt (in contrast to simply saying “Not a math question”), and I chose to give OP the benefit of that doubt.

Other parallels:

① Verizon’s conflation of “point zero zero two cents” and “point zero zero two dollars”—I would consider this on-topic.

② Lewis Carroll’s Mad Tea-party and taking “more” than nothing—I think this is a marginal case, leaning towards being off-topic.

③ Also from Lewis Carroll, his “the song’s name is called”—I would definitely consider this off-topic.