Activity for YorkTechâ
| Type | On... | Excerpt | Status | Date |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Edit | Post #290157 | Initial revision | — | about 1 year ago |
| Question | — |
$\left(\forall \varepsilon >0: |a-b| < \varepsilon\right) \iff a=b$ vs. $\left(\forall \varepsilon > 0: a \le b + \varepsilon \right) \iff a \le b$ How does $\left(\forall \varepsilon >0: |a-b| 0: a \le b + \varepsilon \right) \iff a \le b$? Does one equivalence imply the other? Are they equivalent? I feel they're related because they're both equivalences, they both involve $\varepsilon > 0$, and they both involve inequalities. (more) |
— | about 1 year ago |