Activity for Natâ€
Type | On... | Excerpt | Status | Date |
---|---|---|---|---|
Edit | Post #282147 | Initial revision | — | over 3 years ago |
Answer | — |
A: How does Pr(an event next year) $= 1/100$ imply Pr(at least one of these events occurring in the next 25 years) $> 1/5$? tldr– It's a persuasive-writing issue, not a math issue. If an event has a 1% chance per year, then it has a ${ \left( 1 - 0.01 \right) }^{25} \approx 0.7778 ,$ or 77.78%, chance of not happening in 25 years, and so a 22.22% chance of happening at least once in those 25 years. That's... (more) |
— | over 3 years ago |