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#2: Post edited by (deleted user) · 2021-07-09T15:45:39Z (over 3 years ago)
  • >Since $F(x)$ is continuous in the closed interval [a,a+h] and differentiable in the open interval (a,a+h). Also f(a) = f(b) so by Rolle's theorem we get
  • $$F'(a+\theta h)=0,a<a+\theta h<a+h$$
  • As you seen in the quoted description (I took it from my book) $f(a)=f(b)$ But, I saw in the same book in my language they wrote that $F(a)=F(a+h)$ instead of $f(a)=f(b)$. I think it's a mistake. But, I can't understand which one is correct. Even, I can't see any derivation of the equation $F'(a+\theta h)=0,a<a+\theta h<a+h$
  • >Since $F(x)$ is continuous in the closed interval [a,a+h] and differentiable in the open interval (a,a+h). Also f(a) = f(b) so by Rolle's theorem we get
  • $$F'(a+\theta h)=0,a<a+\theta h<a+h$$
  • As you seen in the quoted description (I took it from my book) $f(a)=f(b)$ But, I saw in the same book in my language they wrote that $F(a)=F(a+h)$ instead of $f(a)=f(b)$. I think it's a mistake. But, I can't understand which one is correct. Even, I can't see any derivation of the equation $F'(a+\theta h)=0,a<a+\theta h<a+h$
  • <hr/>
  • <details>
  • <summary>book</summary>
  • ![book](https://math.codidact.com/uploads/WcL5ReUpUT4NYAPKWs73rY7B)
  • </details>
  • <hr/>
  • Let $$F(x)=f(x)+(a+h-x)f'(x)+A(a+h-x)^2$$-----1
  • $$=>F(a)=f(a)+(h)f'(a)+A(h)^2$$--------2
  • Differentiate (1) respect to $x$ :
  • $$F'(x)=f'(x)-f'(x)+(a+h-x)f''(x)-2A(a+h-x)$$
  • $$=>F'(x)=(a+h-x)f''(x)-2A(a+h-x)$$
  • $$=>F'(a+\theta h)=(h-\theta h)f''(h+\theta h)-2A(h-\theta h)$$
  • As we seen, from that book $F'(a+\theta h)=0$.
  • So,
  • $$=>2A(h-\theta h)=(h-\theta h)f''(h+\theta h)$$
  • $$=>A=\frac{f''(h+\theta h)}{2}$$
  • Put the value in (1). Then, you will get second mean value theorem. Sorry! I can't edit it now for shortness of time.
#1: Initial revision by (deleted user) · 2021-07-09T10:37:02Z (over 3 years ago)
Second mean value theorem proof (differentiation)
>Since $F(x)$ is continuous in the closed interval [a,a+h] and differentiable in the open interval (a,a+h). Also f(a) = f(b) so by Rolle's theorem we get

$$F'(a+\theta h)=0,a<a+\theta h<a+h$$

As you seen in the quoted description (I took it from my book) $f(a)=f(b)$ But, I saw in the same book in my language they wrote that $F(a)=F(a+h)$ instead of $f(a)=f(b)$. I think it's a mistake. But, I can't understand which one is correct. Even, I can't see any derivation of the equation $F'(a+\theta h)=0,a<a+\theta h<a+h$