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Comments on What does it mean by saying that $C([0,1])$ is a subset of $L^\infty([0,1])$?

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What does it mean by saying that $C([0,1])$ is a subset of $L^\infty([0,1])$?

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Question. What does it mean by saying that $C([0,1])$ is a subset of $L^\infty([0,1])$?

Notes. This question might seem "obvious" to those experienced in analysis but can confuse beginners who interpret the statement "literally": an element in \( C([0,1]) \) is fundamentally different from an element in \( L^\infty([0,1]) \). The former is a function on $[0,1]$, while the latter is an equivalence class of functions on $[0,1]$. Given this difference, how can we say \( C([0,1]) \) is a subset of \( L^\infty([0,1]) \)?

I will provide my answer below. Answers offering different perspectives are all welcome.

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Short answer. That means there exists an injection $\iota:C([0,1])\to L^\infty([0,1])$ and one can identify $C([0,1])$ with the image $\iota(C([0,1]))$, which is a subset of $L^\infty([0,1])$.


Now a long one.

We say that a measurable function $f: [0,1] \to {\mathbf C}$ is essentially bounded if there exists an M such that ${|f(x)| \leq M}$ for almost every $x\in[0,1]$, and define $\\\|f\\\|_{L^\infty}$ to be the least $M$ that serves as such a bound.

Let $\mathscr{L}^\infty([0,1])$ denote the set of measurable functions on $[0,1]$ that are essentially bounded and let $\sim$ be the equivalent relation on the set (two measurable functions are equivalent if they agree almost everywhere on $[0,1]$). Then $$L^\infty([0,1]) =\mathscr{L}^\infty([0,1])/\sim.$$ Here, we only care about the set structure, so the quotient is a "quotient set."

Clearly, $C([0,1])$ is a subset of $\mathscr{L}^\infty([0,1])$. So one can define the map $\iota:C([0,1])\to L^\infty([0,1])$ with $\iota(f)= [f]$ where $[f]$ denote an equivalent class in $L^\infty([0,1])$.

By continuity of functions in $C([0,1])$, one can show that the map $\iota$ is injective. In other words, there is a bijection between the set $C([0,1])$ and its image $\iota(C([0,1]))\subset L^\infty([0,1])$. Note that "bijection" is "set isomorphism." In this sense, one can say that $C([0,1])$ is a subset of $L^\infty([0,1])$.

With more structures on $L^\infty([0,1])$, say a normed vector space equipped with the norm topology, one can show that $C([0,1])$ is not dense in $L^\infty([0,1])$, which really means $\iota(C([0,1]))$ is not dense in $L^\infty([0,1])$.

Such identification is so common in analysis that people just use the short version.

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Categorical perspective (again...) (1 comment)
Categorical perspective (again...)
Derek Elkins‭ wrote 12 months ago

In category theory, where it doesn't make sense to talk about "elements" of objects, as they need not be sets, all concepts must be defined in terms of how arrows relate to each other. In this case, the relevant concept is a subobject which is an equivalence class of monos, the categorical generalization of an injective function. This tends to better reflect what mathematicians mean. For example, this same problem occurs in the much simpler context of the formal definition of $\mathbb Z$. A common definition is $\mathbb N\times\mathbb N/{\sim}$ where $(a,b)\sim(x,y)\iff a+y=b+x$. $\mathbb N$ is definitely not a subset of this set, but it is a subobject, or rather $n\mapsto[(n,0)]$ gives rise to a subobject.

Admittedly, categorists are mathematicians too and typically will treat a mono as a subobject even though it's only a representative of the equivalence class that is the subobject which is the exact same kind of conflation happening here.