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Comments on Criterion in terms of the bases for determining whether one topology is finer than another

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Criterion in terms of the bases for determining whether one topology is finer than another

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When topologies are given by bases, one has a useful criterion in terms of the bases for determining whether one topology is finer than another:

Lemma 13.3. (Munkres's Topology p.81) Let $\mathscr{B}$ and $\mathscr{B}^{\prime}$ be bases for the topologies $\mathcal{T}$ and $\mathcal{T}^{\prime}$, respectively, on $X$. Then the following are equivalent:

(1) $\mathcal{T}^{\prime}$ is finer than $\mathcal{T}$.
(2) For each $x \in X$ and each basis element $B \in \mathscr{B}$ containing $x$, there is a basis element $B^{\prime} \in \mathscr{B}^{\prime}$ such that $x \in B^{\prime} \subset B$.

If one modifies condition (2) as:

(2') For each nonempty basis element $B \in \mathscr{B}$ there is a nonempty basis element $B^{\prime} \in \mathscr{B}^{\prime}$ such that $B^{\prime} \subset B$.

then it is unlikely that one can conclude (2'): one cannot use the original argument for showing the implication (2) $\Rightarrow$ (1) anymore.

Can anyone give a counter-example for (2') $\Rightarrow$ (1)?

[(2') edited.]

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1 comment thread

As written, (2') can never br true (2 comments)
As written, (2') can never br true
celtschk‭ wrote about 1 year ago

Your (2') is never true, as $\emptyset\in\mathscr B$, but there certainly doesn't exist a nonempty $B'\subset\emptyset$. In (2) the empty set is excluded by the demand that $x\in\mathscr B$. You need to explicitly exclude $B$ from being the empty set in order for (2') to be possibly true.

Snoopy‭ wrote about 1 year ago

Yes, thanks for that. I will edit it into the post.