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Comments on $g(x)\xrightarrow{x\to\infty}\infty$ Implies $g'(x)\leq g^{1+\varepsilon}(x)$

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$g(x)\xrightarrow{x\to\infty}\infty$ Implies $g'(x)\leq g^{1+\varepsilon}(x)$

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Recently in my ordinary differential equations class we were given the following problem:

Suppose $g:(0,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}$ is an increasing function of class $C^{1}$ such that $g(x)\xrightarrow{x\to\infty}\infty$. Show that for every $\varepsilon>0$ the inequality $g^{\prime}(x)\leq g^{1+\varepsilon}(x)$ upholds, outside a set of finite length.

I thought about using Grönwall's inequality , but i did not got any useful result.

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If you don't get an answer here, ask this on https://old.reddit.com/r/math/ or https://old.reddit.com... (1 comment)
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Consider $g^{-\epsilon}$. Then its first derivative is $D_x \; g^{-\epsilon} = \epsilon g^{-1-\epsilon} g'$. Then $g^{-\epsilon} > 0$ and tends to 0, and ${D_x \; g^{-\epsilon}} < 0 $.

If $D_x \; g^{-\epsilon} < -\epsilon$ on a set of infinite measure, then $\int^{x}_0 D_x , g^{-\epsilon} \quad dx $ (which differs from $g^{-\epsilon}$ by a constant) would diverge to negative infinity. So $D_x \; g^{-\epsilon} \ge -\epsilon$ outside a set of finite measure, from which your desired inequality follows immediately.

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Why is the derivative negative? (2 comments)
Why is the derivative negative?
Peter Taylor‭ wrote over 2 years ago

I can't see where the conclusion $D_x g^{-\epsilon} < 0$ comes from. $\epsilon > 0$, $g^{1+e}(x) > 0$, $g'(x) > 0$, so it seems to me that $D_x g^{-\epsilon} > 0$.

celtschk‭ wrote over 2 years ago · edited over 2 years ago

@Peter Taylor: If I interpret everything correctly, you should have: $D_xg^{-\epsilon} = (-\epsilon)g^{-\epsilon-1}g'$. Note the explicit minus sign in front of the prefactor.