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Comments on Besides guaranteeing 0 ≤ P(A ∩ B) ≤ 1, why can't Independence be defined as P(A ∩ B) = P(A) +,-, or ÷ P(B)?

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Besides guaranteeing 0 ≤ P(A ∩ B) ≤ 1, why can't Independence be defined as P(A ∩ B) = P(A) +,-, or ÷ P(B)?

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I know that $0 \le P(A \cap B) \le 1$ will be violated if $P(A \cap B) = P(A) +,-,\text{or} ÷ P (B)$. I'm not asking about or challenging this reason.

But what are the other reasons against defining independence as $P(A \cap B) = P(A)$

  1. $+ P (B)$?

  2. or $- P (B)$?

  3. or $÷ P (B)$?

Definition 2.5.1 (Independence of two events).

Events A and B are independent if $P(A \cap B) = P(A)P(B)$.

If P(A) > 0 and P(B) > 0, then this is equivalent to $P(A|B) = P(A)$; and also equivalent to $P(B|A) = P(B)$.

Blitzstein, Introduction to Probability (2019 2 ed), p 63.

We have introduced the conditional probability P(A|B) to capture the partial information that event B provides about event A. An interesting and important special case arises when the occurrence of B provides no such information and does not alter the probability that A has occurred, i.e. , P(A I B) = P(A). When the above equality holds. we say that A is independent of B. Note that by the definition $P(A | B) = P(A \cap B)/P(B)$, this is equivalent to $P(A \cap B) = P(A)P (B).$ We adopt this latter relation as the definition of independence because it can be used even when P(B) = 0, in which case P(A|B) is undefined. The symmetry of this relation also implies that independence is a symmetric property; that is, if A is independent of B, then B is independent of A, and we can unambiguously say that A and B are independent events.

Tsitsiklis, Introduction to Probability (2008 2e), p 34.

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  1. Try with different combinations of probabilities: what is their sum, difference, division. Not all of these are probabilities. (Check this.) This would cause a problem.

  2. Draw a square; think of it as the unit square $[0, 1] \times [0, 1]$. On $x$-axis mark the (probabilities of) the events $A$ and not $A$. On $y$-axis do the same for $B$ and not $B$. Then try to find $P(A)P(B)$ in the picture; there is a simple geometric interpretation. Next, try drawing a similar picture with dependent probabilities. Playing around with such representations can be helpful in clarifying the concepts.

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1 comment thread

1. Thanks for your answer. I agree that P(A) + P(B) can $>1$, but then why can't we change the defini... (4 comments)
1. Thanks for your answer. I agree that P(A) + P(B) can $>1$, but then why can't we change the defini...
DNB‭ wrote over 3 years ago
  1. Thanks for your answer. I agree that P(A) + P(B) can $>1$, but then why can't we change the definition of probability to include all numbers $>1$? 2. "here is a simple geometric interpretation". This is just the area, correct? But how does this answer my question?
tommi‭ wrote over 3 years ago

I would suggest you to calculate easy situations with simple independent events. First investigate multiplication and then the others, or maybe try without having one as the maximum probability and see what happens. I do suggest experimenting and investigating and calculating by yourself as much as possible.

DNB‭ wrote over 3 years ago

I don't think you answered by second question above on the "simple geometric interpretation"?

tommi‭ wrote over 3 years ago

Area is the correct interpretation, yes. By experimentation and calculations you can find out whether this interpretation is consistent with how probabilities actually work and whether having this interpretation helps your understanding. You can also think what the corresponding interpretations with other arithmetic operations would be, if any, and whether they work or give you understanding.